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Re: 261e or 259e capable of higher frequencies?

2008-09-29 by kkonkkrete

Talking in Hz doesn't make sense because sensory JND's vary as a
function of the frequency.  That's not a musical claim, it's just a
statement about the hair cells and basilar membrane in your cochlea. 
So although +/-1 Hz is way above your frequency discrimination
threshold at 50 Hz, it is way below your frequency discrimination
threshold at 5000 Hz.  Discussions of the range of human hearing
should be conducted in physiological (not physical) units.  So in my
opinion, I don't think there is any meaningful sense in which 7kHz -
20kHz is 1/3 of the range of human hearing.



--- In 200e@yahoogroups.com, "Thomas Buckler" <thomas.buckler@...> wrote:
>
> Christ, take octaves out of the way and just think about Hertz.
> 
> On Sun, Sep 28, 2008 at 1:27 PM, Chris Muir <cbm@...> wrote:
> >
> >
> > On Sep 28, 2008, at 11:17 AM, Thomas Buckler wrote:
> > > I came up with a third by dividing 21,000 by 3.
> >
> > This is a fairly bogus method, IMO. Human hearing perception is not
> > linear. The highest octave of human hearing is from roughly 10,000 Hz
> > to roughly 20,000 Hz. This is certainly not half the range of human
> > hearing.
> >
> > Perceptual units are a much more useful basis for discussion of this
> > stuff.
> >
> > -C
> >
> > Chris Muir
> > cbm@... <cbm%40well.com>
> > http://www.xfade.com
> >
> >  
> >
> 
> 
> [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
>

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