> I'm guessing it is just some funny facet of the algebra concerned. The (normalized) transfer function for 'stage n', n=1 to 8 (so 30dB is n=5), appears to be > > H(s)=1/((s+1)^n+k*(s+1)^(2n-8)) > > where k is the gain in the feedback loop. If one were to be bothered to work out the phase from this, tan^-1 im(H(wj))/re(H(wj)), I dare say it might be possible to see what it is about n=5 that keeps it nearly zero for w<1 (for 'w', read 'omega'). I have to say I'm not even remotely tempted, far too busy doing other things! this is the best post i've ever read, may i put it on a t-shirt?
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Re: question on a108 phase relationships
2010-01-10 by grimshaw_stuart