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Re: [yamahacs80] harmnic loss - how is possible ?

2005-12-06 by Max Fazio

Just a clearing

>(...) because the signal should have been enhanced all over the place and there from the fft only the harmonic loss is evident.

Juergen , I'm referring to just the low pitched notes (below100Hz)
Salutes

M
  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Max Fazio 
  To: yamahacs80@yahoogroups.com 
  Sent: Tuesday, December 06, 2005 10:42 AM
  Subject: Re: [yamahacs80] harmnic loss - how is possible ?


  Hi Laurie and all, let's see if I got it ;-)

  What I told about high frequencies was a try to understand better what  Juergen said about his view of kind of a "bug" inside the cs80, that is some of the processed signal from EXP circuitry went into the bypassed signal ; we know that EXP adds loudness to the signal but I speculate this is not the case because ( I come back to the beginning ) because the signal should have been enhanced all over the place and there from the fft only the harmonic loss is evident.
  You say also

  >as you bend the fundemental down,
  so do you bent the harmonic content

  You mean that a low pitch fundamental determines low pitch harmonics? Of course ,Laurie,  the fact is that the waveform changes itself :in the case of squares if you put one shot next to the other of 16' to 2' pitched notes you will see that the lower pitched wave has a peak only and a smoothed body resembling more to a blend of a sawtooth and a sine; this means that a narrow numbers of harmonics remained and the fundamental component is stronger, at 8' for example, the wave looks similar to a triangle with peaks at its vertices and so on to resemble a pretty regular square. Why is that I wonder....I ask Juergen to be larger in his explaination.
  All the best
  Max

  ----- Original Message ----- 
    From: laurie 
    To: yamahacs80@yahoogroups.com 
    Sent: Tuesday, December 06, 2005 2:50 AM
    Subject: Re: [yamahacs80] harmnic loss - how is possible ?


    You do realise that harmonic content is pitched down with the
    fundemental.....such as the odd harmonics of a square wave ... they
    remain true to the fundemental... so as you bend the fundemental down,
    so do you bent the harmonic content..... on analog....harmonics aren't
    infinite.... 3-4k is .5 foot compared to a 16 foot  100hz fundemental
    and usually as you get further away from the Fundemental the harmonic
    overtones fade regardless of filters.....3200hz is 5 octaves above 100hz
    ......2560hz is 5 octaves above 80hz   ....1920hz is 5 octaves above 60
    hz...... I think this should explain some of the loss above 3k you are
    experiencing......

    Max Fazio wrote:

    >  Hi Juergen and all.
    >
    > >Not the wahwah. The volume pedal.
    >
    >
    > Maybe I'm dull about this: you say that the exp circuit influences
    > this harmonic loss: I must say that the file I got comes from a single
    > note transposed with footage levers ; if the exp circuit was armed I
    > should have been listening a filtering no matter of the footage but
    > there I hear this harmonic loss under a given frequency, that is
    > 100Hz.
    > This effect I bet that could be hearable sweeping the pitch down with
    > the ribbon.
    > The exp (volume) circuit acts as a loudness circuit as you correctly
    > told me but there I stop understanding because I wonder then:
    >
    > 1.If exp adds loudness then a louder component of low harmonix should
    > be added but the FFT of each tranposed part highlights a *decrease of
    > the amplitude in harmonix beyond 3 or 4 KHz* rather than an increase
    > in low harmonix.
    >
    > 2.If the exp circuit is not enabled the sound bypasses the circuit to
    > OE-output boards. So how could it be? I'm biased to say it should
    > rather be caused by the wah ( but I'm not convinced about this too )
    >
    > Please forgive me for not being much responsive but I 'd be happy to
    > receive from you who knows the CS polyphonics way more than me there
    > who can, an extended explaination because I didn't find this behaviour
    > on none of the synths out there.
    > MAx
    > Thanks for another reply
    >   ----- Original Message -----
    >   From: JH.
    >   To: yamahacs80@yahoogroups.com
    >   Sent: Monday, December 05, 2005 10:10 PM
    >   Subject: Re: [yamahacs80] harmnic loss - how is possible ?
    >
    >
    >
    >   > You mean that the wah pedal circuit alone influences the pure wave
    > because
    >   of some filtering or are the files affected by the wah?
    >
    >   Not the wahwah. The volume pedal.
    >
    >   JH.
    >
    >
    >
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